For the tunnel-effect, the relation between the transmissioncoefficent T and length of the barriere L is:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

[itex]T=e^{-2KL}[/itex]

in which:

[itex]K=\sqrt{\frac{2m(U_0-E)}{\frac{h}{2\pi}^2}}[/itex]

Now, the tunnel-effect is possible for light right? But light means m=0, meaning K=0, meaningT=1!

I must be missing the point somewhere but I can't figure out where

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# Tunnel-effect possible for massless particles?

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