In case of tunnel effect in quantum mechanics we often consider time independent Schroedinger equation with potential ##0##, when ##x<0## then some ##V_0## when ##0\leq x\leq a## and ##0## when ##x>a## so potential barrier problem. And energy of particle that we send to barrier is ##E<V_0##. In that case energy of the particles that past barrier will be the same as energy of particles before barrier. Why is that case? How we could even talk about tunneling in case of time independent problem?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# I Tunnel effect

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