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I Tunnel effect

  1. Apr 9, 2016 #1
    In case of tunnel effect in quantum mechanics we often consider time independent Schroedinger equation with potential ##0##, when ##x<0## then some ##V_0## when ##0\leq x\leq a## and ##0## when ##x>a## so potential barrier problem. And energy of particle that we send to barrier is ##E<V_0##. In that case energy of the particles that past barrier will be the same as energy of particles before barrier. Why is that case? How we could even talk about tunneling in case of time independent problem?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 9, 2016 #2
    Conservation of energy. Why do you think it would be different?
     
  4. Apr 10, 2016 #3
    Yes I know that is conservation of energy. But why there do not exists some dissipation of energy when particles interact with potential ##V_0##. When we have time dependent solution we have also uncertainty
    relation ##\Delta E \Delta t \approx\frac{\hbar}{2}##.
     
  5. Apr 10, 2016 #4
    The evolution of the wavefunction would not be reversible (or very highly unlikely to be reversible) if there were dissipation.
     
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