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Hi
On page 176 of Physics from Symmetry it says (note 9)
If we assume Ψ describes our particle directly in some way what would U(1) the transformed solution Ψ' = e^iθ Ψ be which is equally allowed describe.
He is speaking of allowed solutions of Lagrangian's. Its true for all Lagrangian's I know but why is it true generally? Or is he only speaking of the usual Lagrangian's?
Thanks
Bill
On page 176 of Physics from Symmetry it says (note 9)
If we assume Ψ describes our particle directly in some way what would U(1) the transformed solution Ψ' = e^iθ Ψ be which is equally allowed describe.
He is speaking of allowed solutions of Lagrangian's. Its true for all Lagrangian's I know but why is it true generally? Or is he only speaking of the usual Lagrangian's?
Thanks
Bill