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On page 176 of Physics from Symmetry it says (note 9)

If we assume Ψ describes our particle directly in some way what would U(1) the transformed solution Ψ' = e^iθ Ψ be which is equally allowed describe.

He is speaking of allowed solutions of Lagrangian's. Its true for all Lagrangian's I know but why is it true generally? Or is he only speaking of the usual Lagrangian's?

Thanks

Bill

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# I U(1) Invarience Lagrangians

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