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Universal set question

  1. Sep 13, 2005 #1
    Let's say I have to prove something about two sets and I want to make use of the notion of the universal set. Is it OK then to define the universal set as the union of these two sets?

    - Kamataat
  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 13, 2005 #2


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    Last edited: Sep 14, 2005
  4. Sep 13, 2005 #3
  5. Sep 14, 2005 #4
    Wouldn't you also have to union (in addition to the two sets) the intersection of the complements of the two sets?
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