Universal set question

  • Thread starter Kamataat
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Let's say I have to prove something about two sets and I want to make use of the notion of the universal set. Is it OK then to define the universal set as the union of these two sets?

- Kamataat
 

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EnumaElish
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Wouldn't you also have to union (in addition to the two sets) the intersection of the complements of the two sets?
 
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