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vmw
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Consider,
[tex] f(\mathbf{w}) = \int K(\mathbf{w,\mathbf{v}}) g(\mathbf{v}) d\mathbf{v} [/tex]
where [itex]\mathbf{v},\mathbf{w} \in \mathbb{R^3}[/itex].
Is it possible to solve for the integral kernel, [itex] K(\mathbf{w,\mathbf{v}}) [/itex], if [itex] f(\mathbf{w}) [/itex] and [itex] g(\mathbf{v}) [/itex], are known scalar functions and we require [itex] \int K(\mathbf{w,\mathbf{v}}) d\mathbf{v} = 1 [/itex]? These are definite integrals: [itex]\int \rightarrow \int_{a1}^{b1}\int_{a2}^{b2}\int_{a3}^{b3}[/itex]
Thank you for any solution/advice/insight!
[tex] f(\mathbf{w}) = \int K(\mathbf{w,\mathbf{v}}) g(\mathbf{v}) d\mathbf{v} [/tex]
where [itex]\mathbf{v},\mathbf{w} \in \mathbb{R^3}[/itex].
Is it possible to solve for the integral kernel, [itex] K(\mathbf{w,\mathbf{v}}) [/itex], if [itex] f(\mathbf{w}) [/itex] and [itex] g(\mathbf{v}) [/itex], are known scalar functions and we require [itex] \int K(\mathbf{w,\mathbf{v}}) d\mathbf{v} = 1 [/itex]? These are definite integrals: [itex]\int \rightarrow \int_{a1}^{b1}\int_{a2}^{b2}\int_{a3}^{b3}[/itex]
Thank you for any solution/advice/insight!
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