Hello, I am trying to solve a problem in university level electromagnetic fields course. The problem is in the attachment. My answer is simple, that for the magnetic flux B[itex]\rightarrow[/itex] (vector field B[itex]\rightarrow[/itex]), the Amperian loop will have a current equivalent to 0 because current through Amperian loop i = I - I = 0. Therefore, B[itex]\rightarrow[/itex] = 0 because μ0*2*[itex]\pi[/itex]*ρ*B = i = 0. However, the solution stated that the force will be applied to the right direction. Could anybody enlighten me with what is wrong with my reasoning?