Is it true that <UX, UX> can be written (UX)H(UX)?
The Attempt at a Solution
I think it is because <UX, UX> is equivalent to the dot product in the real case. The above would work (where H is T) if the situation was real.
It just doesn't actually say this anywhere in my notes or book, so I want to make sure I can use this fact. Thanks!