- #1
- 979
- 1
(V^2/R) / (VI) = (VI) / (RI^2) = V / RI
VA = VI = Apparent power
W = RI^2 = Real power
PF = RI/V = Power factor
(V^2/R) / VA = VA / W = V / RI = 1 / PF
(V^2/R) = VA^2 / W
VA>=W
Therefore:
V^2/R >= VA
!
(V^2 / R) * PF = VA
VA * PF = W
!
What is V^2/R? If you have an large inductor, you could have V^2/R with very little current! What causes the magnetic field?
Is it "IR^2"? I know that equals joule loss. (real power=joule loss)
Efficiency = (? - Joule loss) / ?
Is it "VI"? I know that equals the electrical power input. (electrical power input>=joule loss)
Efficiency = (VI - ? - Joule loss) / VI
Is it "V^2/R"? But this is greater than or equal to electrical power input! (V/R>=I) What does this mean when PF<1 ?
Efficiency = ?
VA = VI = Apparent power
W = RI^2 = Real power
PF = RI/V = Power factor
(V^2/R) / VA = VA / W = V / RI = 1 / PF
(V^2/R) = VA^2 / W
VA>=W
Therefore:
V^2/R >= VA
!
(V^2 / R) * PF = VA
VA * PF = W
!
What is V^2/R? If you have an large inductor, you could have V^2/R with very little current! What causes the magnetic field?
Is it "IR^2"? I know that equals joule loss. (real power=joule loss)
Efficiency = (? - Joule loss) / ?
Is it "VI"? I know that equals the electrical power input. (electrical power input>=joule loss)
Efficiency = (VI - ? - Joule loss) / VI
Is it "V^2/R"? But this is greater than or equal to electrical power input! (V/R>=I) What does this mean when PF<1 ?
Efficiency = ?