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Vanishing of a cyclic integral the property of a state function?

  1. Aug 3, 2005 #1
    Why is the vanishing of a cyclic integral the property of a state function?
  2. jcsd
  3. Aug 3, 2005 #2

    matt grime

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    as far as i can tell, a state function is required to be something whose integral is independent of the path chosen for the integral, this is from searchign with google, and appears to be a thermodynaics thing. if we assume this is the definition of a state function then it is clear why any integral over a loop is zero since we may split the loop into two parts and consider the loop as a path from A to B followed by a path from B to A and the integral over a path from B to A is minus the integral we get if we went along that path backwards so they must add up to zero.

    if you're asking why state fucntions are path independent then could i have your definition of state function.
  4. Aug 3, 2005 #3
    Thank you~ I understand now.
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