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is it true that if [itex]\nabla \cdot \vec{F}=0 , \nabla \times \vec{F}=0[/itex] then [itex]\vec{F}=0[/itex]???
Suppose [tex]\vec F=3\hat x \ldots[/tex]is it true that if [itex]\nabla \cdot \vec{F}=0 , \nabla \times \vec{F}=0[/itex] then [itex]\vec{F}=0[/itex]???
By [tex]\hat x[/tex], I mean what you might have seen as [tex]\hat \imath[/tex]....the divergence of 3x is 3 not 0 though?