1. Apr 15, 2009 #1

   latentcorpse

   

   is it true that if [itex]\nabla \cdot \vec{F}=0 , \nabla \times \vec{F}=0[/itex] then [itex]\vec{F}=0[/itex]???

    

   latentcorpse, Apr 15, 2009
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3. Apr 15, 2009 #2

   robphy

   

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   Suppose [tex]\vec F=3\hat x \ldots[/tex]

    

   robphy, Apr 15, 2009
4. Apr 16, 2009 #3

   latentcorpse

   

   the divergence of 3x is 3 not 0 though?

    

   latentcorpse, Apr 16, 2009
5. Apr 16, 2009 #4

   robphy

   

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   By [tex]\hat x[/tex], I mean what you might have seen as [tex]\hat \imath[/tex]....
   that is,
   [tex]\vec F= (3) \hat \imath [/tex]
   or
   [tex]\vec F= (3,0,0) [/tex]
   ...that is, a nonzero constant vector field.

    

   robphy, Apr 16, 2009

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