you can prove that it converges by multiplying the integrand by 1 (in this case pick x/x or x^2/x^2 or something) & use integration by parts, & then the comparison test. i don't think that helps find what it converges to but judging by the image it looks like it goes to 0.bomba923 said:[itex] \forall n > 0,\;n \in \mathbb{R} [/itex], does
[tex] \int\limits_n^\infty {\frac{{\sin x}} {x}dx} [/tex]
converge? If so, to what?
Hey um, where can I download/get this program?steven187 said:...a plot of the intergrand Steven