If f(x) = x to a power between -0.5 and -1, the area between the f(x) graph and the x-axis from, say x=1 to infinity is infinite, but the volume of revolution of f(x) around the x-axis is finite. This seems counter-intuitive. Can anyone give a satisfying explanation of this - preferably a geometrical one please - not just the algebraic integration please - as I'm struggling with this idea.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Thanks, in anticipation.

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Volume of revolution

Loading...

Similar Threads - Volume revolution | Date |
---|---|

I Surface Area of Volume of Revolution | Oct 10, 2017 |

I Confusion on the Volumes of Solids of Revolution | Mar 10, 2016 |

Calc II - Disk vs Shell method different volumes | Nov 7, 2015 |

Volumes of solids of revolution | Aug 20, 2015 |

Negative Volume of Revolution? | Jan 10, 2015 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**