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Wave Equation

  1. Apr 3, 2010 #1
    Why does the laplacian vanish for harmonic functions? Can someone explain this in physical terms?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 3, 2010 #2
    I guess..answers for the Laplace eqn. are harmonic functions..so to find such solution one will equate to zero. (Laplace eqn. is already equated to zero).
    This is my guess..
     
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