1. Apr 3, 2010 #1

   avocadogirl

   

   Why does the laplacian vanish for harmonic functions? Can someone explain this in physical terms?

    

   avocadogirl, Apr 3, 2010
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3. Apr 3, 2010 #2

   Rajini

   

   I guess..answers for the Laplace eqn. are harmonic functions..so to find such solution one will equate to zero. (Laplace eqn. is already equated to zero).
   This is my guess..

    

   Rajini, Apr 3, 2010

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