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why is the wave formula equal to zero when x equals postive/negative infinity?

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why is the wave formula equal to zero when x equals postive/negative infinity?

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quasar987

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Hi,

I think is a requirement that follows from the probabilistic interpretation. If the integral

[tex]\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}|\Psi|^2dx[/tex]

is to converge, psi is to go to zero at infinity

I think is a requirement that follows from the probabilistic interpretation. If the integral

[tex]\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}|\Psi|^2dx[/tex]

is to converge, psi is to go to zero at infinity

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reilly

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Regards,

Reilly Atkinson

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thank you very much! :)

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Daniel.

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reilly

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There's plenty of mathematical rigor to back up common pratice in physics. As Goldberger and Watson putit,

"Mathematics is an interesting intellectual sport, but it should not be allowed to stand in the way of obtaining sensible information about physical processes.This attitude may offend some purists, who should feel free to consult the mathematical literature whenever the mood strikes them." Their manifold contributions to physics validate their statments, at least in my opinion.

And, I do not suggest that rigorous mathematics should be eschewed by physicists; it's a matter of taste and interest. The good Professor Bogoliubov was a master in both the inuitive and and rigorous worlds.

Regards,

Reilly Atkinson

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wow! that's interesting~

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