- #1
Feynmanfan
- 129
- 0
A short question:
I've learned that the wave function corresponding to a free particle has this form:
Psi(x,0)=1/sqrt(2*Pi)*Integral[g(k)*E^(ikx)dx] (i can't write it in Latex, sorry)
Is it just for the free particle, or any quantum state of a system can be represented in this form, where g(k) is the Fourier transf. of Psi?
Can any function of x, represent the state of the free particle?
I've learned that the wave function corresponding to a free particle has this form:
Psi(x,0)=1/sqrt(2*Pi)*Integral[g(k)*E^(ikx)dx] (i can't write it in Latex, sorry)
Is it just for the free particle, or any quantum state of a system can be represented in this form, where g(k) is the Fourier transf. of Psi?
Can any function of x, represent the state of the free particle?