Is it correct to think, that with a scalar complex Klein-Gordon field the wave function [tex]\Psi:\mathbb{R}^3\to\mathbb{C}[/tex] of one particle QM is replaced with an analogous wave functional [tex]\Psi:\mathbb{C}^{\mathbb{R}^3}\to\mathbb{C}[/tex]? Most of the introduction to the QFT don't explain anything like this, but when I've thought about it myself, that seems to be correct.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

If this was correct for the Klein-Gordon field, then the real problem is the Dirac's field. I don't understand what kind of wave functional it could have.

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# Wave functional

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