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Wave Impdence

  1. Oct 6, 2007 #1
    When a em-wave goes from free space to a lossless medium with a [tex]n > 1[/tex], why is it that the wave impedence [tex]\eta[/tex] becomes smaller i.e. [tex]\eta = \frac{\eta_0} { n}[/tex]. I know why from the math but I how to get to this result just by some intuitive reasoning?
  2. jcsd
  3. Oct 13, 2007 #2
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