- #1

einai

- 27

- 0

_{x0}(x') of a particle (in 1-D) located at a certain position x

_{0}? What about the wave function Φ

_{x0}(p') in momentum space? Now, consider the totality of these wave functions for different values of x

_{0}. Do they form an orthonormal set?

The only thing I know is that if I know Ψ

_{x0}(x'), I can Fourier transform it to Φ

_{x0}(p')? But what's Ψ

_{x0}(x')? I'm really confused.

Thanks in advance!