Is int(F*(x-y/2)F(x-y/2))dy always a negative value?

  • Thread starter pivoxa15
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In summary, the conversation discusses the process of taking an integral of a complex function, with a change of variables from y to A. This change of variables results in a reversal of the limits of integration, leading to a discrepancy in the sign of the integral.
  • #1
pivoxa15
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Take int(F*(x-y/2)F(x-y/2))dy over all y. Where F is a complex function

Let A=x-y/2

dA/dy=-1/2 => dy=-2dA

So -2int(F*(A)F(A))dA = int(F*(x-y/2)F(x-y/2))dy

but int(F*(A)F(A))dA >0 so is int(F*(x-y/2)F(x-y/2))dy but from the result it looks as if int(F*(x-y/2)F(x-y/2))dy<0

What is going on?
 
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  • #2
Isn't there a -2 somewhere in the new integral?
 
  • #3
pivoxa15 said:
Take int(F*(x-y/2)F(x-y/2))dy over all y. Where F is a complex function

Let A=x-y/2

dA/dy=-1/2 => dy=-2dA

So -2int(F*(A)F(A))dA = int(F*(x-y/2)F(x-y/2))dy

but int(F*(A)F(A))dA >0 so is int(F*(x-y/2)F(x-y/2))dy but from the result it looks as if int(F*(x-y/2)F(x-y/2))dy<0

What is going on?
What happened to your limits of integration? Replacing a function of y by a function of A will "reverse" the limits of integration.
 
  • #4
Right. Good one.
 

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