- #1
semidevil
- 157
- 2
so riemann integral pretty much says that if you take closer and closer approximations, then you can find the area of whatever(not too precise, I know, but doing the rectangles and stuff).
I'm looking for a proof of it, but all I can find are more general things, i.e, Riemann integeral is integeral on [a, b], etc etc.
how was it proven that taking approximations and all that, actually worked??
I'm looking for a proof of it, but all I can find are more general things, i.e, Riemann integeral is integeral on [a, b], etc etc.
how was it proven that taking approximations and all that, actually worked??