Prof. Hugh Montgomery has been quoted as saying that it appeared that, if the Riemann hypothesis is true, the two-point correlation for the Riemann zeta function seemed to be(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

(*) 1-(sin(πx)/(πx))^{2}.

I naively thought that this meant that x was the xth positive b of the non-trivial zeros (1/2 + bi), and that the above expression would then equal b, or something to that effect, but this illusion quickly dispersed as I saw the list of these b's, starting at around 14 and increasing, whereas (*) was always between 0 and 1. Could someone enlighten me as to the correct nature of the correlation? Thanks.

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# What is the two-point correlation for the zeta function measuring?

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