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Why 0!=1

  1. Jul 6, 2013 #1
    the explanation i got for this is because..

    (x+1)!=(x+1)x!

    and that when x=0

    (0+1)!=(0+1)0!

    simplified 1=0!

    but this implies (0+1)!=1... i don't see how....... if (0+1)0!=0!, then for (0+1)!=1, where did the factorial symbol go? why does the factorial disappear for this? (0+1)!=(0+1)(0)(0-1)(0-2)etc... so someone please explain to me why (0+1)!=1
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jul 6, 2013 #2

    micromass

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    We have that ##0+1=1##, thus ##(0+1)! = 1! = 1##.
     
  4. Jul 6, 2013 #3

    Simon Bridge

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    The factorial sumbol vanished on the RHS because the factorial was evaluated.

    (0+1)0! = (0+1)!
    => 1x0! = 1!
    => 0! = 1
     
  5. Jul 6, 2013 #4

    jedishrfu

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  6. Jul 7, 2013 #5

    symbolipoint

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    That video is perfect. That is the best explanation I ever saw. The guy simply followed the pattern.
     
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