Dave you are officially awesome.
Thanks. I needed that.
It would be virtually impossible to determine with any accuracy the prevalence of homosexuality in history. All we have to go on is how much or little it is reported in literature. And that is probably far more determined by the acceptability of authors writing about it than about any actual prevalance. How many people would be willing to out themselves in, say, the Dark Ages?What I mean is, if homosexuality was vastly more prevalent in ancient Rome, or Celtic cultures, etc. and not prevalent during other times of history, can we not say that gayness is a result cultural/social/nurture bias and not genetics?