- #1
eljose79
- 1,518
- 1
that,s the question..why bohmian mechanics is considered to be false and it is not accepted as a real interpretation of our quantum world?...
If Bell,s inequality fails for Bohmian theory could somebody tell me why?..thanks.
In fact i prefer Bohmian point of view rather than the ortodox one,Bohmian mechanics can be used for all purposes (quantizy gravity,and so on), it,s a pity is not accepted.
In fact theory is non-local but is quantum mechanics really local?...is the c speed limit a real imposition? in fact consider two particle "Alice" and "Bob" then call their wave functions A and B you will probably have that <A,B> (scalar product of function is non-zero, so no mather how far they are ,they will be always interacting...
in fact the c speed limit is a classical limit imposition not a quantum one..then why take special relativity into account ?..
If Bell,s inequality fails for Bohmian theory could somebody tell me why?..thanks.
In fact i prefer Bohmian point of view rather than the ortodox one,Bohmian mechanics can be used for all purposes (quantizy gravity,and so on), it,s a pity is not accepted.
In fact theory is non-local but is quantum mechanics really local?...is the c speed limit a real imposition? in fact consider two particle "Alice" and "Bob" then call their wave functions A and B you will probably have that <A,B> (scalar product of function is non-zero, so no mather how far they are ,they will be always interacting...
in fact the c speed limit is a classical limit imposition not a quantum one..then why take special relativity into account ?..