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## Main Question or Discussion Point

The propagator $$\frac{1}{k^2+m^2} $$ diverges in the ultraviolet when integrated over all dk

$$\Delta(x)=\int d^nk \frac{e^{ikx}}{k^2+m^2} $$ is convergent for x≠0

Intuitively adding the oscillating exponential decreases the ultraviolet growth by alternating it with + and - that cancel when added.

But consider 1 dimension, and the expression $$ \int_1^\infty \frac{dx}{x^n} $$. This expression is convergent for n>1. Now add an exponential: $$ \int_1^\infty dx \frac{ e^{ix}}{x^n} $$. This improves the convergence: now the expression is convergent for n>0. But for n<0, it doesn't converge.

So intuitively, $$\Delta(x)=\int d^nk \frac{e^{ikx}}{k^2+m^2} $$ should not be convergent for n>=2. But it obviously is, since the propagator is convergent in dimensions greater than 2, I believe.

What exactly is happening with these oscillations at infinity? Also I'm a bit bewildered at why $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \cos(x^2) dx $$ is convergent. I can show it mathematically, but intuitively why does that expression converge and not $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \cos(x) dx $$?

^{n}, with n>=2. However, when you throw in an exponential,$$\Delta(x)=\int d^nk \frac{e^{ikx}}{k^2+m^2} $$ is convergent for x≠0

Intuitively adding the oscillating exponential decreases the ultraviolet growth by alternating it with + and - that cancel when added.

But consider 1 dimension, and the expression $$ \int_1^\infty \frac{dx}{x^n} $$. This expression is convergent for n>1. Now add an exponential: $$ \int_1^\infty dx \frac{ e^{ix}}{x^n} $$. This improves the convergence: now the expression is convergent for n>0. But for n<0, it doesn't converge.

So intuitively, $$\Delta(x)=\int d^nk \frac{e^{ikx}}{k^2+m^2} $$ should not be convergent for n>=2. But it obviously is, since the propagator is convergent in dimensions greater than 2, I believe.

What exactly is happening with these oscillations at infinity? Also I'm a bit bewildered at why $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \cos(x^2) dx $$ is convergent. I can show it mathematically, but intuitively why does that expression converge and not $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \cos(x) dx $$?