- #1
jasonc65
- 20
- 0
Why is it that the Fourier transform of [tex] e^{2\pi ikx} [/tex] is equal to [tex] \delta(k) [/tex] ? The delta function is supposed to be zero except at one point. But the integral doesn't converge for [tex] k \ne 0 [/tex]. Yet I see a lot of books on QFT use this identity.