Why is theta restricted to [0,pi] in mathematics and physics?

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In summary: Nerd)In summary, the angle between 2 vectors is defined to be the smallest that is applicable. Conventionally, the angle between any 2 entities is defined to be the smallest that is applicable.
  • #1
evinda
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Hello! (Wave)

I am looking at the following:

View attachment 5324Why do we take the $\theta$ to lie on $[0, \pi]$ ?
 

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  • #2
Because in the interval $[0,\pi]$ the sine function $\sin(\theta)$ is nonnegative. He could have chosen $| {\mathbf a} \times {\mathbf b}| = {\color{red} (-1) } |{\mathbf a}| |{\mathbf b}| \sin(\theta)$, but then he would have reversed the orientation of the cross product.
 
  • #3
evinda said:
Why do we take the $\theta$ to lie on $[0, \pi]$ ?

Hey evinda! (Smile)

The angle between 2 vectors is between $0$ and $\pi$.
That is, if they coincide the angle is $0$, and if they are opposite the angle is $\pi$. (Nerd)
 
  • #4
I like Serena said:
Hey evinda! (Smile)

The angle between 2 vectors is between $0$ and $\pi$.
That is, if they coincide the angle is $0$, and if they are opposite the angle is $\pi$. (Nerd)

So it couldn't be for example $\frac{5 \pi}{4}$? Why? (Thinking)
 
  • #5
evinda said:
So it couldn't be for example $\frac{5 \pi}{4}$? Why? (Thinking)

If the angle between 2 vectors is $\frac{5 \pi}{4}$, that's effectively the same as an angle of $\frac{3 \pi}{4}$.
Conventionally, the angle between any 2 entities is defined to be the smallest that is applicable. (Nerd)
 
  • #6
Perhaps this less-than-artistic picture will help.

View attachment 5325

When we consider angles between lines (and vectors) we always assume the angle that is less than or equal to $\pi$. The picture illustrates the scenario you are considering. In this case what we call the angle between the vectors is the black angle, which is equal to $\frac{3 \pi}{4}$, and not the red angle, which is equal to $\frac{5 \pi}{4}$.

Same reason why when you have two lines forming an acute angle, such as $30^{\circ}$, you say the angle between them is that and not $330^{\circ}$.
 

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  • #7
Fantini said:
Perhaps this less-than-artistic picture will help.
When we consider angles between lines (and vectors) we always assume the angle that is less than or equal to $\pi$. The picture illustrates the scenario you are considering. In this case what we call the angle between the vectors is the black angle, which is equal to $\frac{3 \pi}{4}$, and not the red angle, which is equal to $\frac{5 \pi}{4}$.

Same reason why when you have two lines forming an acute angle, such as $30^{\circ}$, you say the angle between them is that and not $330^{\circ}$.

So is there something like a period?
 
  • #8
evinda said:
So is there something like a period?

Erm... sure... an angle of $\frac{3\pi}4$ is equivalent to an angle of $\frac{11\pi}4$.
But as an angle between vectors we'll still refer to it as $\frac{3\pi}4$. (Thinking)
 
  • #9
In mathematics, the angles between $0$ and $2\pi$ are all considered *distinct*.

In physics, one often speaks of the "angle between", which is "directionless".

Often, a middle path is to use (mathematical) angles on the interval $(-\pi,\pi]$, and then to see the physical angle as the ABSOLUTE VALUE of the mathematical angle, just as speed is the absolute value of velocity.

Put another way, there is some ambiguity as angle as a function of two RAYS, and angle as a function of two LINES. Part of this has to do with the ambiguities inherent in choosing an orientation (clockwise versus counter-clockwise, in the plane, for example, as being "positive rotation"). Spaces don't come with an orientation, only our descriptions of them do. Thus, in the "physical world" the assignment of SIGN to certain quantities is, in effect, arbitrary. Sometimes it is good to define quantities in such a way as to avoid such niggling questions.
 

1. Why is the interval [0,pi] chosen for the definition?

The interval [0,pi] is chosen because it represents one complete cycle of the trigonometric functions sine and cosine. This interval allows for a clear and concise representation of the periodic nature of these functions.

2. Can the interval [0,pi] be replaced with any other interval?

Yes, the interval [0,pi] can be replaced with any other interval that represents one complete cycle of the trigonometric functions. However, using [0,pi] is the most common and convenient choice.

3. How does the interval [0,pi] relate to radians?

The interval [0,pi] is equivalent to 0 to 180 degrees, or half of a full circle. Since radians are based on the unit circle, using [0,pi] as the interval aligns with the concept of measuring angles in radians.

4. Why is the interval [0,pi] important in trigonometry?

The interval [0,pi] is important in trigonometry because it allows for a clear and concise representation of the periodic nature of the trigonometric functions. It also aligns with the concept of measuring angles in radians, which is the preferred unit in higher level mathematics.

5. Can the interval [0,pi] be used for all trigonometric functions?

No, the interval [0,pi] is only used for the trigonometric functions sine and cosine. Other trigonometric functions, such as tangent and cotangent, have different intervals for their definitions. For example, the interval for tangent is (-pi/2,pi/2) and the interval for cotangent is (0,pi).

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