Why is the area normal to a beam of light rays invariant?

  • #1
It is a fact that all inertial observers would measure the same area normal to a beam of light rays in relativity. You can prove this by considering the displacement vector connecting a light ray to its neighbouring light rays. But I wondered if there were some intuitive explanation of why this must be true?
 

Answers and Replies

  • #2
BiGyElLoWhAt
Gold Member
1,577
119
Not really sure what you're looking for. Length dilation/time dilation?
 

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