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Why is there no symbol for partial integration?

  1. Mar 31, 2004 #1
    When you are solving exact differential equations you want to do the opposite of partial differentiation, And when you apply Leibniz's integration I have seen an example were there was an integral symbol (with respect to x) and they treated the other variable as a constant. Is the notation sloppy or is there a quick way of checking whats going on with going into exact proofs?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 31, 2004 #2

    matt grime

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    As long as the variables are indpendent this is fine (ie partial d by d one of the other is zero.)
     
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