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I Why μ*ε=1/c^2

  1. May 22, 2017 #1
    I've been following the derivations in the following video up until that point. I don't quite understand why does it imply that μ*ε=1/c^2. Thanks.

  2. jcsd
  3. May 22, 2017 #2


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    Check out the wave equation earlier on in the video (10:20) . ##v^2=\omega^2/k^2 ## and ##{1\over \mu_0\varepsilon_0}## takes that place, so ##v^2 = {1\over \mu_0\varepsilon_0}## .
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