Why Taylor Series works so well for some functions and not for others

In summary, the conversation discusses the concepts of linear approximation, Taylor series, and the convergence of approximation polynomials. It is explained that certain functions like e^x and trigonometric functions have closely fitting Taylor approximations, but for others, the approximation may not be as accurate due to the presence of poles. The idea of a Laurent expansion is also mentioned. It is noted that the convergence of a Taylor series to the actual function is a complicated question and requires consideration of the function's poles. The concept of a "very well-behaved" function is introduced, but it is ultimately determined that the success of a Taylor series approximation for a function depends on the existence of poles within the expansion interval.
  • #1
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About a week ago, I learned about linear approximation from a great youtube video, it was by Adrian Banner and the series of his lectures I think were from his book Calculus LifeSaver. I truly thought it was so beautiful and powerful a concept. Shortly I also got to know the Taylor Series and the general concept of this technique of matching the derivatives of any function with that of an approximating polynomial around a point. I messed with it a little and was so amazed by its success in predicting functions like sines and cosines and exponentials. For these functions, the polynomial approximation is true for any x. But for others, I found it not to be so. So, why is it that certain functions like e^x and trigonometric functions have so closely fitting Taylor approximations and why not the others? Does it have to do with the convergence of the approximation polynomial? Or is there more to it than just that?
 
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  • #2
No, even if a function's Taylor series, [itex]\sum (f^{(n)}(a)/a!)(x- a)^n[/itex], converges for all x, it does not necessarily converge to the function itself (except at a). For example, the function [itex]f(x)= e^{-1/x^2}[/itex] if [itex]x\ne 0[/itex], f(0)= 0 is infinitely differentiable at all x and all of its derivatives at 0 are equal to 0. So its Taylor series, about a= 0, is identically 0 while f(x) is 0 only at x= 0.

Whether or not a function's Taylor series actually converges to the function itself is a very complicated question. Technically such functions are called "analytic" functions. (Sometimes "real analytic" to distinguish them from the same concept in functions of complex variables where the definition is the same but there are much more complicated consequences.)
 
  • #3
The main idea here is the concept of "poles". This is basically when your function ends up dividing by zero. At these points the function isn't defined and hence your taylor series diverges.

As an example, consider 1/(1+x).
This has a pole at x=-1, which is where the function diverges but for |x|<1, your taylor series about zero should work fine. You can check this be looking at the taylor series itself which happens to be the sum of (-x)^n from n=0 to infinity.
You might think, well, my pole is at x=-1, but what about x=1, there isn't a pole there and my function =1/2. However you're taylor series becomes 1-1+1-1+1-1... forever, and this really doesn't make any sense. Similarly it fails for any |x|>1.

That was just a simple example to illustrate the idea which basically revolves around where an expansion is valid, and in general, your expansion will be valid up until you hit a pole in the complex plane. For nice functions like polynomials, e^x, sines and cosines, you're all good as there aren't any poles, but if you try this for something like tan(x), you'll hit a problem at |x|=pi/2.

I hope that helps, it's just a heuristic without going into too many details. Just try and think of things in a complex plane, you can draw a circle around the point you're expanding about and as long as there are no poles in that circle you can taylor expand up to (but possibly not including) the circle. (for 1/(1+z), you have a circle of radius 1, inside which your taylor series (-z)^n is valid). For expansions about poles, there is something called a Laurent expansion which you could look into if you're interested :)
 
  • #4
Thanks.
So there is no other deeper logic in terms of which this apparently exact convergence for "very well-behaved" functions like e^x can be explained? And is there no other function to which the series fits similarly well?
Is it just empirical that for functions other than exp and sines and cosines(within the inverse existent domain ofc) the approximation curve starts to deviate away from the actual function after a certain interval?
 
  • #5


The reason why Taylor Series works so well for some functions and not for others is due to the nature of the function itself. For functions like sines, cosines, and exponentials, the derivatives at any point can be easily calculated and have a predictable pattern. This allows for the Taylor Series to accurately approximate the function at any point, as the derivatives of the approximating polynomial closely match those of the original function.

On the other hand, for functions with more complex or irregular patterns, the derivatives may not follow a predictable pattern and may not be easily calculated. This makes it difficult for the Taylor Series to accurately approximate the function, as the derivatives of the approximating polynomial may not match those of the original function.

Additionally, the convergence of the Taylor Series also plays a role in its success. The Taylor Series only converges for certain functions and within a certain interval around the point of approximation. If the function does not converge within this interval, the Taylor Series will not accurately approximate the function.

In summary, the success of the Taylor Series in approximating a function depends on the nature of the function itself and the convergence of the series. For simpler, more regular functions, the Taylor Series can provide a close approximation, while for more complex functions, other methods may be more suitable.
 

1. Why is the Taylor Series method often used in mathematical analysis?

The Taylor Series method is often used in mathematical analysis because it allows for the approximation of a function using a polynomial. This can be useful for finding the value of a function at a certain point, or for estimating the behavior of a function near a specific point.

2. How does the Taylor Series method work?

The Taylor Series method works by using derivatives of a function at a given point to construct a polynomial approximation of the function. As more terms are added to the approximation, the accuracy of the approximation increases.

3. Why does the Taylor Series method work well for some functions and not for others?

The Taylor Series method works well for functions that are infinitely differentiable, meaning that they have derivatives of all orders at a given point. If a function is not infinitely differentiable, the Taylor Series will not accurately approximate the function.

4. Can the Taylor Series method be used for functions with discontinuities?

No, the Taylor Series method cannot be used for functions with discontinuities. The method relies on the derivatives of a function being continuous, so if there are discontinuities present, the Taylor Series will not provide an accurate approximation.

5. Are there any limitations to using the Taylor Series method?

Yes, there are limitations to using the Taylor Series method. As mentioned before, the function must be infinitely differentiable and cannot have any discontinuities. Additionally, the method may not provide an accurate approximation for functions with a large radius of convergence, or for functions with complex behavior near the point of approximation.

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