Assume x = rand(1)*v1 + rand(1)*v2 + rand(1)*v3 where each v is obtained by the columns of the nulbasis(A) which are the solutions to Ax = 0, and that rand(1) is a random coefficient (scalar). Why would the rref(A) * x still be 0 when A * x is 0? Thank you!(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Homework Help: Why would the rref(A) * x still be 0 when A * x is 0?

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