I was watching Lincoln last night, and at a part were the idea of women voting was laughed at by the legislators. My mom's comment was along the lines of "Oh right, women weren't smart enough to vote back then." or something similar (and a sarcastic tone of course). My retort was that around this time (1865) was still close to the declaration of independence, and perhaps the concept of voting was linked directly to how independence came about, women didn't fight in "wars", and in turn did not make the same sacrifice as many men. I don't know the details of how armies were created in 1700's, but assume every able body man could be "forced" to participate. So was denying women the right to vote about them presumably not being able to understand the politicking, or was it more because they didn't fight for the independence. Is it historically clear why women were not allowed to vote back then? I'd be pretty shocked it was strictly due to the ignorant assumption women could not comprehend the importance of decisions made via voting. I'm Canadian so my understanding of American history is limited to Hollywood and the HBO series John Adams. btw American history is really interesting, at least compared to Canada's of the same era (less 1812).