Hey people. This is crazy! I haven't had TIME to check out the forum since class began. I do nothing but study and still am (at least a little) late in every class!(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Anyway I do have a question about physics to which I haven't been able to find the answer. I was hoping you guys could help! For the record, I use the book 'Mechanics', third edition by Symon. It is written in there that the work, W, is defined has follow

[tex]W=\int_{0}^{t} F(x, v, t) v dt[/tex]

Now it is obvious that if F is simply a function of x, we can simplify vdt=dx and change the limits of the integral from 0 and t to 0 and x. And if x(t) = x(0) = 0 then W = 0. But for force function of x, v and t, it is not so easy to show that if the particle ends up at his initial position, then W = 0. In fact, according to what the calculations I've made, I would tend to say that it isn't.

So, is it? And how do you know?

Thanks for your imputs!

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# Work for a force function of x, v, t

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