Actually, this is one of the question I was wondering about.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

If mathematics allows for wormholes (And there's really no point in asking if they exist), then the following is true?

Through time dialations pertaining to relativity, it would seem that if there's enough of a dialation through both mouthes of the wormhole, one could possibly look into another century. Now, if this were true, he could see objects in the future, right beside him, that hasn't existed yet.

Now, if that's the case, then would that not mean that when an object is not at rest (and thus dialating through time), that it actually travells to a different "almost paralell universe"? Think about it, if large differences in time can be noticed in "if it exists or not", then why would small changes not affect that?

Being 16, I'm not exactly too familiar with the topic, in Richard Feymen suggested that each particles actually moves through every position in order to arrive at a point, right? I guess this is another version of the uncertainty principle. Now, could this possibly work with what I suggested, and this would be the end result?:

For every movement that something makes, it actually jumps through an near infinate amount of "universes". In each of these universes, each particle moves through a different path. Since, if we know the position and speed of every particle, we can predict what happens in the future, then this would mean that MANY futures are possible. In each of these, another future is born.

In essence, couldn't this mean, that for every possible movement for every possible particle, that there is another universe, in which things are different? This would surely make wormholes make sense.

There's probably a flaw in there somewhere, if someone would point it out, I'd be grateful. Thanks.

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# Wormholes mean changes to Relativity?

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