I have read the following arguement as proof that if an omiscient being can see the future, free will does not exist. 1. An infallible, omniscient, being exists. [Assumption] 2. This being has foreknowledge that event 'A' will occur. [Definition of omniscience] 3. 'A' must occur. [Definition of infallible] 4. I cannot choose to do any action which would make it so that 'A' does not occur. [Points, 1, 2, 3] 5. I lack free will. [Point 4] Does this arguement hold water? For the sake of the above argument, please forget what quantum mechanics may or may not prove, etc. Before given the information above, if we assume that free will can exist, do the points above alone prove that it can not. Thanks.