1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data If X1 ~ Y1 and X2 ~ Y2, then X1X2 ~ Y1Y2, prove or find a counterexample. (the distribution of X1 has the same distribution of Y1 etc) 2. Relevant equations - 3. The attempt at a solution I'm guessing the statement is true. For example if X1 and Y1 were both uniform and X2 and Y2 are binomial, then a uniform * binomial is distributed the same as a uniform * binomial.