- #1
metalmaniac
- 4
- 0
Have a look at this.
http://www.matter.org.uk/schools/content/interference/formula.html"
I follow the derivation of the formula. However it seems to follow from the diagram that:
λ=ssin(arctan(w/D))
Without the need for the approximation sinx ≈ tanx.
I can't see how this can be true because why would we use λ=sw/D if we have an exact form.
http://www.matter.org.uk/schools/content/interference/formula.html"
I follow the derivation of the formula. However it seems to follow from the diagram that:
λ=ssin(arctan(w/D))
Without the need for the approximation sinx ≈ tanx.
I can't see how this can be true because why would we use λ=sw/D if we have an exact form.
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