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Zero inflated poisson

  1. Mar 14, 2010 #1
    1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data

    f(x) = (1-p)+pe^-lamdba ; x=0
    = [p(e^-lambda)lambda^x]/x! ; x = 1, 2, ....
    = 0 ; otherwise

    2. Relevant equations

    show that f(x) is a valid probability function

    3. The attempt at a solution

    I think I am supposed to integrate [p(e^-lambda)lambda^x]/x! from 0 to infinity...
    or is it 1 - infinity? i'm very confused. Could someone help me solve this?


    Sorry if my notations are wrong, I'm new.
  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 14, 2010 #2
    sorry, I've now worked it out. I used the summation instead of the integral. i hope this is correct.

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