Recent content by Aigologist

I can see that the Jarlskog invariant is zero, but the CKM-Matrix would still have one complex phase, right? How is that not conflicting?

Hello everyone, I know that if two of the quarks (e.g. strange & bottom) had coinciding masses, there would be no CP-violation in the standard model. Apparently the reason lies in the parameters of the CKM-matrix, but I don't understand how to show that. Can someone explain?