Recent content by alice22

What is calc 1?

"There are people who have IQs above 140 who don't do anything with there lives, lack any significant academic skill, and display no behavior indicitive of intelligence" Really? That's a rather sweeping statement! They are certainly good at getting the right answer in IQ tests, which...

You can define cos as tan if it makes the problem easier, after all convenience is what it is all about, who cares if it makes any sense?

No I have problems with that. For starters show me the mathematics equation for "someone wanted something"? I do not recall covering the that in my math course, maybe I missed the maths of "someone wanted". example x^2 = 3 (because someone wanted it to be). The inverse of the exponential...

I am looking for a viable explanation not to be 'told' this is the answer. I don't think convenience is a credible answer. I also do not see how the value of "e" can be changed no more than the value of pi can be changed. It might be convenient to say pi=3 however, convenience is not what is...

OK I get lost sometimes in the notation of maths, it makes it hard to follow, but what I am saying is this, what is so special about 1? OK, ln(x) passed though y=0 at this point, but so what? Lot's of functions pass through zero, that's no big deal. I will concede one thing however, maybe I am...

So what is that white line in the middle like an equator?Why does it appear to have red polar caps? Universal warming perhaps?

http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/science_and_environment/10501154.stm Pebble. Universe.I would have expected it to be rounder. So why is it pebble shaped? Could it be our universe is merely a pebble in a greater universe?

Yes I said that it the first line of my post. The thread was not closed though, it was still open for posting.

Well it just seems a bit of a 'cheat' to me. I mean if you defined the integral to be from 0 to x, you would come up with the same answers wouldn't you so why bother saying it is from 1 to x?

What I am saying is the exponential function does not stop at 1, however the integral of 1/x does not seem to be defined below 1. You seem to have ignored that bit and it was that bit I was specifically concerned with.

"Just like everywhere else." If they are the same as everywhere else then why not start from less than zero. For example what is the integral of 1/x from 0.4 to 0.8, if you have to start from 1 you cannot do this? "What do you mean by area at the point? " Well the area from 0-1...

Firstly sorry to drag up an old thread. Actually I was wondering about that last night, I was thinking the limit was from 0, and then I though that at 0, 1/x = 1/0 = infinite! And hence all integrals of 1/x= infinity - infinity! So why start at 1? You could avoud the 1/0 by starting...

I think it might help if you go back to basics and work from there. Sometimes it is better to try to work out a few for yourself, without using formulas. I learned much of what I know from working out combination and perms by hand gambling on horses, which helped quite a bit but here were some...

Not on a per trip basis it isn't. Anyway the original question seem to relate to relativity, I arrived by a direct link.