Recent content by chaoky

Well, yes, although Lambert's proof is much more involved. Are there any additional justifications to Euler's manipulation of Lagrage's fraction that are needed?

I was wondering about Lambert's proof of π's irrationality. Supposedly he was the first one to prove it in 1761 when he derived a continued fraction for the tangent function. Then I was reading through some of Euler's translated papers when I stumbled upon the same continued fraction in Euler's...