Recent content by Ferruccio

Is there a reason for it, a theory behind, or it is a natural phenomenon which is inexplicable? A reason for it as in, we can hear sound using ears, because the sound is in human audible range. It's a natural phenomenon too, but a reason to explain why.

Nope, I'm not asking about the determination of direction. I'm asking about why the direction. Let me rephrase my question, let's say my current, I as my ay, magnetic field, B as my az, why is the force, F as ax? why not F = -ax or some other directions?

If Fmag = q(v x B) and Felectric = qE, Florentz = q [E + (v x B)] can I say that Florentz = Fmag + Felectric?

Lorentz force is explained or demonstrated using Fleming's Left Hand Rule or the Force equation using cross product. What I'm trying to ask here is, why is the direction fixed using the Left Hand Rule or the equation? Why is the direction here and not there? Equation and rules are the...