Recent content by furdun

That makes complete sense, thank you for your help.

Thank you very much that does help. Could you possibly point me in the direction as to why <0|\textbf{p};\textbf{q}> = 0 where |\textbf{p}, \textbf{q}> is a two particle state. I remember this but can't recall why. Also how do I mark this as answered?

[SOLVED] Klein-Gordon Causality calculation Homework Statement In Peskin and Schroeder on page 27 it is stated that when we compute the Klien-Gordon propagator in terms of creation and annihilation operators the only term that survived the expansion is...