Recent content by mathstudent34

I have to show that $\forall z\in B(0,0.4)$, there exists an $x\in B(0,1)$ such that $f(x)=z$ but I am not sure how to show this. From the reverse triangle inequality $$-|f(x)-f(y)|+|x-y|\leq 0.1|x-y|\implies |f(x)-f(y)|\geq 0.9|x-y|$$ im not sure if this helps.