Recent content by MCKim

I want to prove orthogonality of associated Legendre polynomial. In my textbook or many posts, \int^{1}_{-1} P^{m}_{l}(x)P^{m}_{l'}(x)dx = 0 (l \neq l') is already proved. But, for upper index m, \int^{1}_{-1} P^{m}_{n}(x)P^{k}_{n}(x)\frac{dx}{ ( 1-x^{2} ) } = 0 (m \neq k) is not...