I'm really not sure. Obviously I can get the units right with Resistance * thickness, but I assume there's a correction factor here that I can't find anywhere?
In descriptions of a VSM, the induced voltage in a coil is shown to be emf = -dPhi/dt = - (dPhi/dz)(dz/dt). From here, everyone seem to jump to a solution of emf = 2*Pi*A*f*m*sin(2*Pi*f*t).
That makes some sense: in this case, you can define z = A*cos(2*Pi*f*t) so (dz/dt) =...