Recent content by NotChelsea

ummmm is it because of the "1 = 2"?

Prove by mathematical induction that n sigma r^3 = n^2(n+1)^2/4 r = 1 so far I have 1 sigma r^3 = 1^2(1+1)^2/2 r=1 1 = 1(4)/2 1 = 4/2 1 = 2 I'm not sure what to do after this for the k+1 case.