Recent content by rabualeez
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Undergrad Why does ln(-1) = πi equal πe^(iπ/2) in polar form?
Hi all, I was doing some math and I stumbled upon a very interesting thing. When I do ln(-1), I get πi, and when I turn that into polar coordinates on the calculator, it gives me πeiπ/2 . Why is that? I'm very curious to know, because they are so intertwined! Thank you- rabualeez
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- Form Interesting Polar Polar form
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- Forum: Topology and Analysis