Recent content by String_man

Let’s make it simple. If I am right, your question is pointing toward something which says, “will a wave function, that is satisfying the SE (say Ψ) will remain a perfect wave function when multiplied by something say ‘x’, and thus making it ‘xΨ’ ”? This question is however a complete analog...

sorry ! its just a typing mistake. You can understand what i want to say.

Can anyone tell me what is the "Brus Approximation" in case of the bang gap of semiconductors?:rolleyes:

As we already know, a moving charge particle develops magnetic field arround itself. That mean to say, inorder to develop magnetic field arround itself a charge particle have to move. Now, let's keep the particle(charge) at rest w.r.t laboratory frame and then we starts to move; as we does so...